Tinnitus Atlas · Self-assessment
Self-assessment
All 405 self-assessment questions from across the atlas, grouped by module and tagged by level (Foundation, Trainee, Clinician). Each set scores as you reveal answers; read every rationale, including the incorrect options. For applied vignettes, work the case library; for a measure-by-measure overview, see Compare.
Module 1 · Understanding Tinnitus: A Phantom Sound
The word 'tinnitus' derives from a Latin verb meaning to:
Approximately what proportion of adults worldwide experience some form of tinnitus, per the 2022 global meta-analysis?
Which best captures the modern conceptual model of chronic subjective tinnitus?
Module 2 · What Tinnitus Is — Definition and Terminology
Which feature best distinguishes tinnitus from an auditory hallucination?
Saying 'tinnitus is a symptom, not a disease' implies that:
Why do reported prevalence figures for tinnitus vary so widely between studies?
Module 3 · Subjective vs Objective Tinnitus
Approximately what proportion of tinnitus is subjective rather than objective?
A rhythmic clicking tinnitus unrelated to the pulse most suggests which source?
For typical bilateral, non-pulsatile subjective tinnitus with symmetric hearing loss, current guidelines recommend:
Module 4 · Functional vs Structural Tinnitus
What fundamentally distinguishes 'structural' from 'functional' tinnitus?
A patient with bilateral, non-pulsatile tinnitus and a symmetrical high-frequency audiogram is best classified as having tinnitus that is most likely:
Why does the functional/structural framework usefully guide imaging decisions?
Module 5 · Psychoacoustic and Temporal Subtypes
Which tinnitus descriptor most strongly suggests a vascular cause and an objective sound?
Unilateral tinnitus accompanied by asymmetric sensorineural hearing loss should prompt which investigation?
A rhythmic clicking tinnitus that is NOT synchronous with the heartbeat most suggests:
Module 6 · Epidemiology and Burden of Tinnitus
Approximately what proportion of adults has any tinnitus, and what proportion has severe/bothersome tinnitus, per pooled global data?
Which is the leading MODIFIABLE risk factor for tinnitus at the population level?
What dominates the societal cost of tinnitus in cost-of-illness analysis?
Module 7 · Otologic Causes of Tinnitus
Which feature most specifically points to Ménière’s disease as the cause of a patient’s tinnitus?
Most patients with chronic subjective tinnitus also have which finding?
A 55-year-old develops sudden unilateral hearing loss with new tinnitus over one day. What is the most appropriate immediate action?
Module 8 · Neurologic Causes of Tinnitus
Which tinnitus pattern most strongly warrants MRI to exclude retrocochlear pathology?
A patient can make their tinnitus louder by clenching the jaw and turning the neck. This indicates:
Tinnitus from multiple sclerosis is best characterised as:
Module 9 · Vascular Causes (Pulsatile Tinnitus)
Which feature best distinguishes a venous from an arterial cause of pulsatile tinnitus at the bedside?
Which is a 'must-not-miss' vascular cause of pulsatile tinnitus that may be both dangerous and curable?
A patient has sharply pulse-synchronous tinnitus unchanged by neck compression, raising suspicion of an arteriovenous shunt. Which study is the reference standard and may also be therapeutic?
Module 10 · Muscular and Mechanical Causes
Which feature defines objective tinnitus?
A patient has rhythmic ear clicking; tympanometry shows trace deflections synchronous with the clicks. First-line medical treatment is:
Which is the preferred targeted intervention for disabling essential palatal tremor causing tinnitus?
Module 11 · Pharmacologic and Ototoxic Causes
Which ototoxic agent typically causes REVERSIBLE tinnitus by disrupting outer-hair-cell electromotility?
Why is the danger of combining a loop diuretic with an aminoglycoside emphasised?
Which cochlear region is injured first in cisplatin and aminoglycoside ototoxicity, explaining why tinnitus precedes speech-frequency loss?
Module 12 · Idiopathic Tinnitus and Systemic Links
What best describes idiopathic tinnitus?
The central-gain model proposes that idiopathic tinnitus with a normal audiogram may arise because:
Which systemic condition has been linked in population data to an increased risk of developing tinnitus and is worth screening for before labelling a case idiopathic?
Module 13 · Mechanism: Cochlear Damage and Deafferentation
What is the cochlear event that most directly triggers the central changes of tinnitus?
In the Kujawa & Liberman model, a 'temporary' noise-induced threshold shift can leave which permanent change?
Schaette and Kempter's model predicts that the dominant tinnitus pitch tends to fall:
Module 14 · Mechanism: Central Gain and Cortical Plasticity
Central gain in tinnitus is best described as:
The EEG/MEG signature of thalamocortical dysrhythmia in tinnitus includes:
In Jastreboff's neurophysiological model, what converts a faint phantom signal into chronic, distressing tinnitus?
Module 15 · Mechanism: Somatosensory Cross-Talk
Which brainstem structure is the principal site of auditory-somatosensory integration relevant to tinnitus?
After cochlear injury, somatosensory inputs influence auditory neurons more strongly mainly because of:
Bimodal (paired sound-plus-somatosensory) stimulation is thought to reduce tinnitus by:
Module 1 · Pathophysiology Overview — A Peripheral Trigger, A Central Disease
The 'two-stage' model of tinnitus proposes that:
Central gain in tinnitus is best described as:
Why does tinnitus loudness correlate poorly with the audiogram?
Module 2 · Peripheral Generators — Cochlea, Synaptopathy, Deafferentation
Cochlear synaptopathy preferentially affects which auditory-nerve fibres first?
In the Kujawa & Liberman model, what is the key dissociation after a 'temporary' noise exposure?
Perceived tinnitus pitch most often corresponds to:
Module 3 · Spontaneous Hyperactivity After Deafferentation
Which structure shows the earliest and most robust spontaneous hyperactivity after noise trauma?
Immediately (1-6 h) after acute noise trauma, central spontaneous firing typically:
Spontaneous hyperactivity relates to perceived tinnitus pitch because it:
Module 4 · Neural Synchrony, Bursting and Hyperexcitability
Why is a burst of spikes a more effective signal to a downstream neuron than the same number of spikes fired tonically?
Cross-fibre coherence contributes to the tinnitus percept because the auditory brain normally interprets synchronous firing across many fibres as:
In thalamic (MGB) neurons of tinnitus animals, what membrane mechanism underlies the shift to rhythmic burst firing after loss of excitatory drive?
Module 5 · The Dorsal Cochlear Nucleus as a Generator
Which cells are the principal output neurons of the dorsal cochlear nucleus implicated in tinnitus generation?
After cochlear deafferentation, fusiform cells become hyperactive primarily because:
The best-supported role of the DCN in tinnitus is that it acts as:
Module 6 · The Central Gain Mechanism (Homeostatic Plasticity)
In the central-gain model, why can homeostatic plasticity generate a phantom sound after hearing loss?
The Schaette & Kempter computational model is notable because it can predict, from a patient's audiogram, the:
How does the central-gain model explain hyperacusis as the 'cousin' of tinnitus?
Module 7 · Tonotopic Map Reorganization and the Edge Effect
In the 'edge effect', which frequencies become over-represented in auditory cortex after a focal cochlear lesion?
What did Langers and colleagues' high-resolution fMRI study contribute to the tonotopic-reorganization debate?
Why does weakened lateral inhibition at the lesion edge promote tinnitus-related activity?
Module 8 · Thalamocortical Dysrhythmia and Neural Oscillations
In thalamocortical dysrhythmia, what causes auditory thalamic relay neurons to switch into rhythmic burst firing?
What is the 'edge of gamma' in the Llinás model?
Which resting EEG/MEG change is characteristically REDUCED in tinnitus and interpreted as loss of inhibitory tone?
Module 9 · Auditory Cortex and Resting-State Networks
Why has no single 'tinnitus locus' been identified in the brain?
In the resting-state account, what role does the default-mode network play in tinnitus?
Which clinical observation is best explained by the network/salience model of tinnitus?
Module 10 · The Limbic and Emotional Network
In Rauschecker’s noise-cancellation model, where is the aberrant tinnitus signal normally gated before it reaches awareness?
Which structure is described as the central gatekeeper of the frontostriatal noise-cancellation circuit?
A clinical implication of the dissociation between loudness and distress is that:
Module 11 · Attention, Salience and the Default-Mode Network
The salience network in tinnitus is anchored by which two regions?
A hallmark default-mode-network abnormality in tinnitus is:
Why does the triple-network framework support the use of CBT and habituation therapy?
Module 12 · Predictive Coding — A Bayesian Model of Tinnitus
In predictive-coding terms, what is passed up the cortical hierarchy to update the brain’s model?
Sedley’s sensory-precision model attributes tinnitus primarily to:
Why is the predictive-coding framework described as “unifying” for tinnitus?
Module 13 · Phantom Perception and the Neuropathic-Pain Parallel
Which feature is shared by tinnitus, phantom-limb pain and neuropathic pain?
Which oscillatory pattern is proposed to be common to both chronic tinnitus and chronic central pain?
What is an important limitation of the tinnitus-neuropathic-pain analogy?
Module 14 · The Evidence — Neuroimaging and Electrophysiology
Which EEG/MEG pattern is most characteristic of chronic tinnitus?
Reduced ABR wave-I amplitude in a tinnitus patient with a normal audiogram is interpreted as evidence of:
Why has no single objective biomarker of tinnitus been validated for clinical use?
Module 15 · Unifying Models and What They Mean for Treatment
Jastreboff's neurophysiological model is best summarised by which claim?
In the Bayesian-precision model, how does deafferentation produce a phantom percept?
What is the principal clinical implication of integrating the models into one stage framework?
Module 1 · How Tinnitus Presents — The Clinical Picture
Which statement best captures why the word ‘tinnitus’ alone is clinically insufficient?
A pulse-synchronous ‘whooshing’ sound most importantly prompts the clinician to consider:
The ‘loudness–distress disconnect’ implies that the principal target of management is usually:
Module 2 · Taking the Tinnitus History
By common clinical convention, tinnitus is classified as ‘chronic’ when it has lasted:
Which history feature most lowers the threshold for MRI of the internal auditory meatus?
Asking a patient ‘what do you think is causing the noise, and what worries you most?’ is valuable chiefly because it:
Module 3 · Pitch, Loudness and Sound Quality
The perceived pitch of subjective tinnitus most often corresponds to:
Typical loudness-matched tinnitus, measured against an external tone, is usually around:
A clicking or fluttering quality to the tinnitus should chiefly prompt consideration of:
Module 4 · Temporal Pattern, Onset and Fluctuation
By common convention, tinnitus is classified as 'chronic' once it has persisted for longer than:
A patient says tinnitus is barely noticeable at work but unbearable in bed at night. This diurnal pattern is best explained by:
Compared with chronic tinnitus, recent-onset (acute) tinnitus most importantly warrants:
Module 5 · Recognising Pulsatile Tinnitus
The single most useful first question when tinnitus sounds rhythmic is whether it is:
A continuous low hum that the patient can soften by pressing on the ipsilateral neck and by turning the head toward that side most suggests:
Why does recognising pulsatile tinnitus change clinical management?
Module 6 · Somatic & Somatosensory Features
The defining clinical feature of somatic tinnitus is that the percept can be:
Modulation of tinnitus by jaw and neck movement is anatomically explained by somatosensory afferents converging on the:
Identifying a somatic tinnitus phenotype is clinically worthwhile chiefly because it:
Module 7 · Laterality and Clinical Red Flags
Which feature most strongly mandates dedicated vascular imaging rather than reassurance?
An adult presents with new unilateral tinnitus and asymmetric SNHL. Which investigation is first-line to exclude a retrocochlear lesion?
Which presentation should be treated as an otological emergency requiring same-week assessment?
Module 8 · Tinnitus Distress and the Emotional Reaction
Which best describes the relationship between matched tinnitus loudness and tinnitus distress?
In the cognitive-behavioural model, what most directly converts a neutral phantom sound into a distressing one?
Given the loudness–distress dissociation, which treatment approach has the strongest evidence for reducing tinnitus distress?
Module 9 · Impact on Sleep and Cognition
Approximately what proportion of people with bothersome tinnitus report clinically meaningful sleep disturbance?
Which mechanism best explains why tinnitus-related insomnia tracks annoyance more than loudness?
Reviews of cognition in tinnitus most consistently show impairment in which domains?
Module 10 · Anxiety, Depression and Suicidality
Compared with adults without tinnitus, adults with tinnitus have approximately what change in the prevalence of anxiety and depression?
Which statement best captures the relationship between tinnitus and suicide risk?
A brief, practical way to screen for mood comorbidity during a tinnitus visit is to use:
Module 11 · Hyperacusis, Misophonia and Sound Tolerance
The feature that most reliably distinguishes misophonia from hyperacusis is that misophonic reactions are:
Hyperacusis and tinnitus frequently coexist because both are linked to:
Why is blanket ear protection and sound avoidance generally the wrong advice for a hyperacusic patient?
Module 12 · Special Populations (Paediatric, Elderly, Meniere, Vestibular Migraine)
Why is tinnitus under-recognised in children?
The classic tinnitus of Menière’s disease is best described as:
Which finding best distinguishes vestibular migraine from Menière’s disease in a patient with episodic vertigo and tinnitus?
Module 13 · Questionnaires — THI, TFI and Friends
How many items does the Tinnitus Handicap Inventory contain, and what is its total score range?
What is the principal advantage of the Tinnitus Functional Index over the THI?
A clinic switches from the THI to the mini-TQ between a patient's two visits. What is the main problem?
Module 14 · Psychoacoustic Measures and Severity Grading
What does the minimum masking level (MML) measure?
A patient's tinnitus is matched at 7 dB sensation level but their TFI is 65. What does this illustrate?
Residual inhibition refers to which phenomenon?
Module 15 · Clinical Classification and Phenotyping for Management
In the AAO-HNS scheme, what distinguishes secondary tinnitus from primary tinnitus?
Which single classification label most directly determines whether active intervention is offered?
What is the central purpose of the TRI database and the ESIT standardised questionnaire?
Module 1 · The Bedside Approach to Tinnitus
Which set best captures the three core goals of a bedside tinnitus assessment?
According to the neurophysiological model, why does the bedside examination extend beyond the ear?
A patient matches their tinnitus at only 4 dB SL yet scores severely on a handicap inventory. What does this best illustrate?
Module 2 · General and Otoscopic Examination
Which otoscopic finding most often produces an immediately reversible tinnitus?
The Schwartz sign at the bedside should make you anticipate which audiometric pattern?
What is the single most important bedside rule when a retrotympanic vascular mass is seen?
Module 3 · The Neuro-otologic Examination
Why are cranial nerves VII and VIII examined together in the neuro-otologic screen?
In acute vertigo with tinnitus, which bedside combination most suggests a dangerous central lesion?
Tinnitus that changes in pitch or loudness when the patient clenches the jaw or turns the neck most likely reflects what?
Module 4 · Tuning-Fork Tests (Weber, Rinne)
On the Weber test, the tone lateralises to a purely conductive ear because:
A Rinne test reported as 'bone louder than air' (negative) in a patient who actually has profound sensorineural loss in that ear is best explained by:
Which statement about the accuracy of tuning-fork tests is correct?
Module 5 · Auscultation and Inspection for Objective Tinnitus
While auscultating a patient with pulsatile tinnitus, a hum over the mastoid disappears with light ipsilateral jugular compression. This most suggests:
Rhythmic flutter of the tympanic membrane that is regular but NOT synchronous with the pulse is characteristic of:
When documenting objective tinnitus, which single feature most efficiently separates a vascular from a myogenic cause?
Module 6 · Tinnitus Pitch Matching
Most subjective tinnitus is pitch-matched to:
Octave confusion in pitch matching refers to:
The tendency for matched tinnitus pitch to fall near the edge of the audiometric loss is best explained by:
Module 7 · Tinnitus Loudness Matching
Tinnitus loudness matches are conventionally expressed in which unit, and why?
A patient matches tinnitus to 8 dB SL yet rates it 90/100 for intrusiveness. The best interpretation is:
Loudness recruitment in a cochlear-impaired ear affects loudness matching by:
Module 8 · Minimum Masking Level
The minimum masking level is best defined as:
Feldmann’s masking curves demonstrated that tinnitus, unlike external tones, can:
A patient has an MML above 40 dB SL with a resistant masking curve and marked hyperacusis. The most appropriate interpretation is:
Module 9 · Residual Inhibition Testing
Residual inhibition is best described as:
The standard bedside method for eliciting residual inhibition is:
Roberts and colleagues showed that residual inhibition is deepest when the masker frequency:
Module 10 · Somatosensory and TMJ Bedside Assessment
Why can forceful jaw clenching change a patient's tinnitus?
Which finding best supports a cervicogenic (rather than jaw-related) somatosensory component?
A positive somatic modulation test at the bedside should chiefly be interpreted as:
Module 11 · Neck and Vascular Examination (Pulsatile)
During auscultation for pulsatile tinnitus, asking the patient to hold their breath is done to:
Light ipsilateral internal-jugular compression abolishes a patient's pulsatile tinnitus. This most strongly suggests:
Which bedside finding most urgently mandates dedicated vascular imaging?
Module 12 · Bedside Hearing and Speech Checks
When performing the whispered-voice test, why is the non-test ear masked (e.g., by rubbing the tragus)?
What is the principal role of bedside hearing screens in a tinnitus patient?
The calibrated finger-rub auditory screening approach (CALFRAST) improves on a casual finger rub mainly by:
Module 13 · Bedside Distress and Psychometric Screening
Why is matched tinnitus loudness a poor guide to how much a patient needs treatment?
Which instrument was specifically designed to profile subscales (including sleep and sense of control) and to be responsive to treatment change?
A patient with a high THI also screens positive on the self-harm item. What is the appropriate response?
Module 14 · Red Flags on Examination
Which presentation is LEAST likely to require imaging?
A patient has pulsatile tinnitus and a bluish retrotympanic mass on otoscopy. What must you NOT do?
Tinnitus accompanied by sudden sensorineural hearing loss should be regarded as:
Module 15 · A Systematic Bedside Protocol
In the structured protocol, why are pitch and loudness matching placed AFTER the examination and tuning-fork tests?
What makes the red-flag check a distinct explicit step rather than an assumption?
Even when no red flags or distress are found, why does the plan still include explicit reassurance?
Module 1 · The Diagnostic Work-up — What to Order and When
Which feature in the tinnitus history most strongly mandates dedicated vascular imaging?
Why is audiometry performed before any other instrumented test in tinnitus?
A patient has symmetric tinnitus, symmetric high-frequency sensorineural loss, no pulsatility and no neurological signs. According to the tiered algorithm, what is the appropriate imaging strategy?
Module 2 · Pure-Tone Audiometry (incl. high-frequency)
What is the classic audiometric signature of noise-induced cochlear injury?
According to the central-gain model, where does the matched tinnitus pitch typically fall relative to the audiogram?
Why does extended high-frequency audiometry add value in a tinnitus patient with a normal conventional audiogram?
Module 3 · Speech Audiometry
What does a word recognition score (WRS) primarily assess that the pure-tone audiogram does not?
Rollover on performance-intensity testing is best described as:
A tinnitus patient with a near-normal audiogram complains chiefly of difficulty understanding speech in restaurants. Which test best captures and quantifies this disability?
Module 4 · Tympanometry and Acoustic Reflexes
A flat tympanogram with no identifiable peak and a normal ear-canal volume most likely indicates:
Reflex decay (amplitude falling below half within 10 seconds of a sustained tone) is most suggestive of:
In a patient with a clicking objective tinnitus, what immittance finding supports middle-ear myoclonus?
Module 5 · Otoacoustic Emissions (and SOAEs)
Otoacoustic emissions are primarily a measure of which structure?
Reduced contralateral suppression of OAEs in tinnitus patients is interpreted as:
Regarding spontaneous OAEs (SOAEs) and tinnitus, which statement is correct?
Module 6 · ABR and Electrocochleography
Which ABR finding most suggests a retrocochlear lesion?
An SP/AP ratio above approximately 0.4 on electrocochleography is most consistent with:
Why has MRI largely replaced ABR for screening unilateral tinnitus with asymmetric hearing loss?
Module 7 · Extended High-Frequency Audiometry & Hidden Hearing Loss
Why does cochlear synaptopathy leave the standard pure-tone audiogram normal?
What is the characteristic ABR pattern proposed in hidden hearing loss with central gain?
Extended high-frequency audiometry adds value in tinnitus because it:
Module 8 · Psychoacoustic Measurement (pitch, loudness, MML, RI)
Why is tinnitus loudness reported in dB sensation level (dB SL) rather than dB hearing level (dB HL)?
A high or 'unmaskable' minimum masking level most suggests:
The tinnitus spectrum (likeness rating) is preferred over a single pitch match because it:
Module 9 · Patient-Reported Outcome Measures in the Work-up
Which instrument is best chosen specifically to measure whether a tinnitus treatment is working over time?
Why are anxiety, depression and sleep screens (e.g. GAD-7, PHQ-9, PSQI) part of the tinnitus work-up?
The minimal clinically important difference (MCID) for the TFI is approximately:
Module 10 · Laboratory and Blood Work-up
What is the recommended approach to blood testing in the typical patient with gradual, bilateral, age-appropriate tinnitus?
Which finding on history most specifically justifies ordering a full blood count in a tinnitus patient?
Once a targeted blood abnormality (e.g. iron-deficiency anaemia or hypothyroidism) is corrected, what is the appropriate next step regarding the tinnitus?
Module 11 · Imaging — Who to Scan and Why
What is the recommended imaging approach for the typical patient with bilateral, non-pulsatile tinnitus and symmetrical hearing loss?
Which feature is NOT a recognised red flag that prompts imaging in tinnitus?
Why does targeting imaging by red flags matter from a yield perspective in asymmetric SNHL?
Module 12 · MRI in Tinnitus (IAC/brain, vestibular schwannoma)
Which MRI sequence provides the high-sensitivity cisternographic screen of the IAC/CPA for a vestibular schwannoma?
Why is MRI preferred over ABR for excluding vestibular schwannoma in asymmetric SNHL?
A patient with unilateral tinnitus has a completely normal IAC/brain MRI with gadolinium. What is the appropriate interpretation and next step?
Module 13 · CT and Vascular Imaging for Pulsatile Tinnitus
Which bedside manoeuvre classically reduces a venous pulsatile tinnitus?
Why is catheter DSA still considered the reference standard for vascular pulsatile tinnitus?
A continuous machinery-like bruit with early venous filling on imaging in a pulsatile-tinnitus patient should raise suspicion for which lesion?
Module 14 · Emerging and Research Investigations (fMRI/PET/EEG/MEG)
Which pair of methods offers excellent temporal resolution but relatively poor spatial localisation?
The classic resting-state electrophysiological signature of tinnitus is best described as:
What is the principal reason functional imaging is not used clinically to diagnose tinnitus?
Module 15 · Building a Stratified, Cost-aware Work-up
Which work-up does EVERY tinnitus patient warrant before any branching decision?
A patient with clearly UNILATERAL tinnitus and asymmetric sensorineural loss should have which highest-yield targeted investigation?
Why is routine neuroimaging discouraged for symmetric, non-pulsatile tinnitus?
Module 1 · The Management Philosophy — No Cure, Much Help
What is the primary therapeutic target of conservative tinnitus management?
In the stepped-care model, which intervention is offered to essentially all patients with bothersome tinnitus?
Why is telling a patient “nothing can be done” considered clinically harmful?
Module 2 · Patient Education and Reassurance
At which step does education and reassurance primarily interrupt the cycle that maintains tinnitus distress?
Which statement best characterises the role of structured education in tinnitus care?
When is education and reassurance alone likely to be insufficient?
Module 3 · The Evidence Base and Clinical Guidelines
Which of the following does the AAO-HNS 2014 clinical practice guideline recommend AGAINST for treating the tinnitus percept itself?
Why do both major guidelines give cognitive behavioural therapy a strong recommendation?
What is the honest, guideline-consistent message about pharmacological treatment of chronic subjective tinnitus?
Module 4 · Addressing Modifiable Factors
Which of the following drug-induced tinnitus patterns is typically REVERSIBLE on stopping the drug?
What does the best randomised evidence suggest about caffeine restriction for tinnitus?
Why should clinicians counsel patients AGAINST excessive sound avoidance and over-use of earplugs in quiet settings?
Module 5 · Hearing Aids in Tinnitus Management
According to the central-gain model, why might restoring auditory input with a hearing aid reduce tinnitus?
What did the Cochrane review of hearing aids for tinnitus with co-existing hearing loss conclude?
How is the built-in sound generator of a combination device typically set?
Module 6 · Pharmacotherapy — Why No Cure Exists
Which statement best reflects the regulatory status of drug treatment for tinnitus?
What is the most legitimate, evidence-based role for medication in tinnitus management?
Which factor is a major structural reason that tinnitus drug trials repeatedly fail?
Module 7 · Antidepressants (for distress and comorbidity)
What does the Cochrane review by Baldo and colleagues conclude about antidepressants for tinnitus?
A key reason to prefer nortriptyline over amitriptyline in an older patient is:
Which counselling point should accompany starting an SSRI in a distressed tinnitus patient?
Module 8 · Anxiolytics and Anticonvulsants
What did the randomised controlled trial by Piccirillo and colleagues show about gabapentin for idiopathic subjective tinnitus?
Which statement about benzodiazepines for tinnitus is correct?
Typewriter tinnitus is characteristically:
Module 9 · Other Drugs and Intratympanic Therapy
What did the Cochrane review by Wegner and colleagues conclude about betahistine for tinnitus?
Which best describes the AM-101 (esketamine) intratympanic programme for tinnitus?
What is the most defensible role for melatonin in a tinnitus patient?
Module 10 · Supplements and Complementary Therapy
What does the Cochrane evidence conclude about Ginkgo biloba for tinnitus?
For which patient is a short trial of zinc most defensible?
Which complementary option has the best (though still modest and sleep-mediated) supporting evidence in tinnitus?
Module 11 · The Placebo Effect and Trial Design
Which of the following is a TRUE placebo effect rather than a statistical artefact?
Why do patients often appear to improve simply because they enrolled in a study at their worst?
Which design feature most directly isolates a treatment's specific effect from placebo in a tinnitus trial?
Module 12 · Managing Comorbidities (sleep, anxiety, depression)
What is the first-line treatment for chronic insomnia in a patient with tinnitus?
What does the evidence say about antidepressants in tinnitus?
Which counselling point is correct for the patient with tinnitus and hyperacusis?
Module 13 · Psychological Therapies — CBT, ACT, MBSR
Why are psychological therapies considered the best-evidenced tinnitus treatments despite not reducing tinnitus loudness?
What distinguishes acceptance and commitment therapy (ACT) from classical CBT for tinnitus?
Which delivery format best expands access to evidence-based tinnitus CBT for housebound or rural patients?
Module 14 · Stepped Care and Severity Stratification
On what should tinnitus patients be stratified for stepped care?
What did the Cima et al. (2012) randomised trial demonstrate about specialised stepped care for tinnitus?
Which presentation should bypass the stepped ladder and prompt urgent specialist referral?
Module 15 · The Multidisciplinary Management Approach
What is the main argument for managing bothersome tinnitus with a multidisciplinary team?
Within the team, who delivers the best-evidenced interventions for tinnitus distress itself?
Which is a recognised real-world barrier to delivering multidisciplinary tinnitus care?
Module 1 · Retraining the Brain — The Habituation Paradigm
What is the defining therapeutic goal of the sound-based therapies in this chapter?
In the Heller and Bergman soundproof-room study, what proportion of normal-hearing volunteers perceived a phantom sound?
What does the landmark TRT vs. standard-of-care randomised trial best illustrate about sound-based therapy?
Module 2 · The Jastreboff Neurophysiological Model
In the Jastreboff model, where is tinnitus-related distress primarily generated?
Which three systems form the self-reinforcing loop described by the model?
How does directive counselling act on the loop?
Module 3 · The Principle of Habituation
Habituation is best described as which type of process?
Which level of habituation typically occurs first in successful therapy?
Why does prolonged silence tend to make tinnitus more prominent?
Module 4 · TRT — Directive Counselling
What is the primary therapeutic target of directive counselling in TRT?
Which feature distinguishes directive counselling from simple reassurance?
By reducing the threat appraisal of tinnitus, directive counselling most directly decreases activity in which systems?
Module 5 · TRT — The Sound Therapy Component
What is the 'mixing point' in TRT sound therapy?
Why does TRT use partial sound rather than total masking?
A randomised comparison of mixing-point versus total-masking settings by Tyler and colleagues found that:
Module 6 · TRT Categories and the Treatment Protocol
How many TRT categories did Jastreboff and Jastreboff describe, and how are they numbered?
Which feature defines the most cautious TRT category, in which sound is introduced very slowly?
What did the Tinnitus Retraining Therapy Trial (TRTT) contribute to how TRT is now viewed?
Module 7 · Sound Enrichment and Environmental Sound
In the Heller and Bergman soundproof-room study, what was the key finding?
How does sound enrichment differ from masking?
Which is the best advice for a normal-hearing patient whose tinnitus disturbs sleep?
Module 7 · Masking and Residual-Inhibition Therapy
What does the minimum masking level (MML) measure?
Which finding best characterises residual inhibition as described by Roberts and colleagues?
Why does TRT favour partial rather than total masking?
Module 7 · Notched and Customised Sound Therapy
What is the proposed mechanism by which notched sound reduces tinnitus?
For which patient is notched music LEAST appropriate?
What did the Cochrane review conclude about sound therapy for tinnitus?
Module 7 · Neuromodulation and Bimodal Stimulation
Which neuromodulation approach for tinnitus has received FDA clearance and is supported by large randomised trials?
What is the proposed mechanism of bimodal auditory-somatosensory stimulation?
How should a clinician characterise the realistic benefit of bimodal stimulation to a patient?
Module 7 · Integrating CBT and Mindfulness
In the blended model, which component is primarily responsible for reducing tinnitus-related distress (as opposed to the percept)?
A randomised trial of mindfulness-based cognitive therapy for chronic tinnitus found that it:
What is the central rationale for delivering sound therapy and psychological therapy in parallel rather than choosing one?
Module 7 · Evidence and Comparative Efficacy
According to the Cochrane review, what is CBT's effect on the measured loudness of tinnitus?
What did the multicentre Tinnitus Retraining Therapy Trial (TRTT) conclude about the sound-generator component?
What is the best-supported overall conclusion when the comparative evidence is read honestly?
Module 7 · Personalising the Therapy Plan
Which instrument is appropriate for quantifying tinnitus distress and tracking change over time?
A patient with moderate tinnitus and a 45 dB high-frequency hearing loss but only mild distress is best matched first to:
An adherent patient shows no meaningful THI improvement at the 6-month review. According to the personalised, evidence-based approach, the best next step is to:
Module 8 · Sound Generators and Wearable Devices
Compared with white noise, pink noise is best described as having:
What is the rationale for setting a sound generator at the 'mixing point' rather than full masking in a retraining approach?
Which statement best reflects the evidence for sound generators?
Module 9 · Hearing Aids and Combination Devices
Roughly what proportion of people with bothersome tinnitus have some degree of hearing loss?
A combination device differs from a standard hearing aid in that it:
What does the Cochrane review on amplification with hearing aids for tinnitus with co-existing hearing loss conclude?
Module 1 · When Procedures Help — Treat the Cause, Select Carefully
Which statement best captures the role of surgery in tinnitus management?
A patient is most likely to benefit from a procedure when the tinnitus is:
Why does the threshold for accepting surgical risk sit especially high in tinnitus care?
Module 2 · Surgery for the Underlying Ear Disease
In otosclerosis, what is the most accurate statement about tinnitus after stapes surgery?
A patient with chronic otitis media has tinnitus. Which component is least likely to improve with tympanomastoid surgery?
Why is tinnitus relief an unreliable goal of Meniere's disease procedures?
Module 3 · Cochlear Implantation and Tinnitus Suppression
What is the principal proposed mechanism by which cochlear implantation suppresses tinnitus?
According to systematic reviews, tinnitus outcomes after cochlear implantation in deaf patients are best described as:
How should cochlear implantation be positioned when counselling a deaf patient with tinnitus?
Module 4 · Cochlear Implant for Single-Sided Deafness with Tinnitus
What is the core mechanistic rationale for using a cochlear implant to treat tinnitus in single-sided deafness?
Which feature of tinnitus relief was most striking in the original Van de Heyning SSD cochlear implant series?
A patient with SSD and disabling tinnitus is being counselled before implantation. Which statement is most accurate?
Module 5 · Implants When a Cochlear Implant Is Not Possible (ABI, etc.)
Why can a cochlear implant fail to be an option in some profoundly deaf ears?
Where does an auditory brainstem implant deliver its stimulation?
Which statement best reflects the honest scope of the ABI for tinnitus?
Module 6 · Intervention for Pulsatile Tinnitus — Overview
What is the governing principle of the interventional approach to pulsatile tinnitus?
A patient's pulsatile tinnitus stops when light pressure is applied over the ipsilateral jugular vein. This most strongly suggests:
Which imaging study is the definitive test for characterising a suspected dural arteriovenous fistula causing pulsatile tinnitus?
Module 7 · Sigmoid Sinus and Jugular Bulb Procedures
Why does a dehiscence over the sigmoid sinus produce audible pulsatile tinnitus?
During sigmoid sinus reconstruction, which principle most protects against a dangerous complication?
What outcome can a well-selected patient expect after sigmoid sinus wall reconstruction?
Module 8 · Dural AV Fistula and Endovascular Treatment
A pulsatile tinnitus that does NOT stop with ipsilateral neck compression and is accompanied by a cranial bruit most suggests:
What is the gold-standard investigation to define a dAVF and stratify its haemorrhage risk?
What is the mainstay of treatment for a dAVF presenting with pulsatile tinnitus?
Module 9 · Glomus Tumour (Paraganglioma) Management
Which otoscopic finding most suggests a glomus (paraganglioma) tumour?
Why is preoperative embolisation used for a large hypervascular glomus jugulare?
For a large glomus jugulare in a frail 78-year-old, which option best balances control against morbidity?
Module 10 · Superior Semicircular Canal Dehiscence Repair
Which symptom is most reliably abolished by surgical closure of a superior canal dehiscence?
On VEMP testing, the hallmark finding in superior canal dehiscence is:
Compared with the middle-cranial-fossa approach, the transmastoid approach to SCD repair principally:
Module 11 · IIH and Venous Sinus Interventions
Pulsatile tinnitus due to a transverse-sinus stenosis in IIH characteristically:
The pharmacological mainstay shown to improve outcomes in the IIH Treatment Trial is:
Endovascular venous sinus stenting abolishes the pulsatile tinnitus of IIH chiefly by:
Module 12 · Middle-Ear and Palatal Myoclonus — Surgery and Botulinum Toxin
Which feature best identifies myoclonic tinnitus as objective rather than subjective?
A patient’s palatal tremor persists during sleep and involves the levator veli palatini. The appropriate next step is:
A recognised, usually transient adverse effect of botulinum toxin injected into the levator veli palatini for palatal myoclonus is:
Module 13 · Invasive Neuromodulation (DBS, Cortical, Invasive VNS)
Which invasive neuromodulation technique for tinnitus has been tested in a published double-blind randomised controlled pilot in humans?
What is the proposed mechanism by which vagus-nerve stimulation paired with tones is thought to help tinnitus?
Why is the threshold for offering invasive neuromodulation in tinnitus held particularly high?
Module 14 · Microvascular Decompression of the Cochleovestibular Nerve
Which feature most strongly supports a vascular-compression (typewriter) mechanism for tinnitus?
What is the principal procedure-specific risk of microvascular decompression of the cochleovestibular nerve?
How did a systematic review characterise the overall evidence for MVD in tinnitus?
Module 15 · Patient Selection and the Evidence — A Cautious Algorithm
Which single principle best summarises appropriate patient selection for tinnitus surgery?
What does the major clinical practice guideline advise regarding non-pulsatile subjective tinnitus?
Which interventional tinnitus indication has the strongest evidence base in this chapter?
Module 1 · Tinnitus as a Window on Systemic Disease
Which tinnitus feature most strongly suggests a vascular or high-output systemic mechanism?
Why is identifying a systemic cause of tinnitus clinically important?
Which clinical pattern should LEAST prompt a systemic work-up for tinnitus?
Module 2 · Cardiovascular Disease and Hypertension
Through which mechanism does a high-output state such as thyrotoxicosis or severe anaemia most directly cause tinnitus?
What is the key practical implication of the association between hypertension and tinnitus?
A patient has pulsatile tinnitus and several cardiovascular risk factors. What is the most appropriate response?
Module 3 · Anaemia and Haematologic Causes
Why does anaemia cause pulsatile tinnitus?
Which patient group most warrants iron-status testing for new tinnitus?
How can polycythaemia or a hyperviscosity syndrome present to the otologist?
Module 4 · Thyroid and Endocrine Causes
Why is the cochlea particularly vulnerable to thyroid dysfunction?
A patient with thyrotoxicosis describes a rushing, pulse-synchronous tinnitus. What is the most likely mechanism?
In a patient with fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus and positive thyroid antibodies, which additional mechanism should be considered beyond simple metabolic effects?
Module 5 · Metabolic Disease, Diabetes and Deficiencies
Why is the cochlea especially vulnerable to microvascular disease?
Which statement about zinc supplementation for tinnitus is best supported by the evidence?
In which tinnitus patient is checking serum vitamin B12 most justified?
Module 6 · Autoimmune and Inflammatory Causes
What clinical feature most strongly suggests an autoimmune or inflammatory cause of tinnitus?
Why is a trial of high-dose corticosteroids considered the diagnostic hallmark of autoimmune inner ear disease?
In steroid-dependent or steroid-refractory autoimmune inner ear disease, which is an appropriate next-line option?
Module 7 · Neurologic Systemic Causes
A 28-year-old presents with sudden unilateral tinnitus and hearing loss, and is found on examination to also have diplopia and dysarthria. Which investigation is most likely to reveal the cause?
Which feature best distinguishes vestibular migraine from Meniere disease in a patient who reports tinnitus during episodes?
Pulsatile tinnitus in idiopathic intracranial hypertension is most directly attributed to which mechanism?
Module 8 · Infections and Post-infective Tinnitus
Which infective cause of audiovestibular symptoms is most strongly suggested by a tick-exposure history, an expanding erythematous rash and facial palsy?
A patient develops ear pain, a vesicular rash in the ear canal, ipsilateral facial weakness, tinnitus and vertigo. What treatment most improves the chance of recovery?
Regarding post-COVID tinnitus, which statement best reflects the evidence?
Module 9 · Renal, Hepatic and Electrolyte Causes
Why are the kidney and the cochlea so often affected together by systemic disease?
A dialysis patient reports tinnitus that worsens before each session and improves afterwards. This pattern most directly suggests:
Which class of drug both is directly ototoxic and can potentiate aminoglycoside ototoxicity, making it a hazard in renal failure?
Module 10 · Medication-Induced Tinnitus and Polypharmacy
Which drug typically causes a REVERSIBLE tinnitus that resolves within a few days of stopping it?
A patient has a family history of profound deafness after a single antibiotic injection. Which factor most increases susceptibility to aminoglycoside ototoxicity?
Which combination represents the classic dangerous ototoxic synergy?
Module 11 · TMJ, Cervical and Musculoskeletal Causes
Which central structure best explains how jaw and neck input can generate tinnitus?
Tinnitus is a frequently reported complaint after which musculoskeletal injury?
Why is fibromyalgia associated with a higher prevalence of tinnitus?
Module 12 · Psychiatric and Functional Contributors
What best describes the relationship between tinnitus and depression/anxiety?
In which patients is the excess risk of attempted suicide associated with tinnitus most concentrated?
Which intervention has the strongest evidence base for bothersome tinnitus, even when it does not change the perceived sound?
Module 13 · Unusual and Rare Forms of Tinnitus
A patient describes brief, repetitive 'Morse-code' bursts of tinnitus that switch on and off. Which intervention is most likely to help?
A man is repeatedly jolted awake by a painless, sudden loud bang inside his head as he falls asleep, sometimes with a flash of light. The most likely diagnosis is:
Tinnitus that appears or changes loudness specifically with eccentric eye movement, arising after acoustic-neuroma surgery, is best explained by:
Module 14 · The Systemic Work-up: History, Examination and the Rational Blood Panel
According to clinical guidance, which best describes the role of blood tests in tinnitus?
In which patient is checking vitamin B12 most justified?
An 18-month history of tinnitus with new heat intolerance, a fine tremor and a palpable goitre should prompt which first-line blood test?
Module 15 · Integrating Systemic Causes: When to Suspect, Whom to Involve, and How to Co-manage
Which clinical picture most warrants a wider systemic work-up rather than reassurance?
A patient's pulsatile tinnitus is found to coincide with a carotid bruit. The most appropriate referral pathway is to:
What is the central, hopeful message of integrating systemic causes into tinnitus care?